Based on current recommendations from the ADA, for which patient with T2D would a GLP-1 RA NOT be the best next glucose-lowering therapy option?
A. A 30-year-old man with T2D (A1C of 7.2%), cardiomyopathy, and heart failure (HF) using glipizide twice daily B. A 40-year-old woman with T2D (A1C of 8.6%), obesity, and fibromyalgia using metformin C. A 55-year-old man with T2D (A1C of 7.7%), stage 3b CKD using dapagliflozin D. A 60-year-old woman with T2D (A1C of 6.8%), a heart attack 5 years ago, and a history of recurrent vaginitis engaging in behavioral modifications