2B. TRANSLATION 1. Choose the true statement about the genetic code. a. The genetic code is redundant, with multiple codons specifying a single amino acid. b. The genetic code encodes 64 amino acids, one for each of the 64 corresponding codons. c. The genetic code varies widely among organisms, with each having a different set of codons for a corresponding amino acid. d. mRNA codon is made of four nucleotides to specify a single amino acid. 2. Which of the following does NOT have direct role in translation? a. tRNA b. DNA c. Ribosomes d. Amino acids 3. Choose the true statement about protein synthesis. a. In eukaryotes, translation occurs in the nucleus; in prokaryotes, translation occurs in the cytoplasm. b. Prokaryotic cells produce polycistronic mRNA as a product of transcription, which must then be spliced to remove introns prior to translation. c. The first amino acid in a eukaryotic protein sequence is methionine, whereas the first amino acid in a prokaryotic protein sequence is formyl methionine. d. In eukaryotes, translation can start before transcription finishes, whereas prokaryotic mRNA must first undergo processing. 4. How is translation terminated? a. When the ribosome runs out of the mRNA b. When there are no more charged tRNA molecules c. When the A, P, and E sites are all filled d. When ribosome reaches the stop codon, a protein called a release factor enters and binds to the A site 5. How does the ribosome know if the entering charged tRNA is correct? a. The anticodon on the tRNA base pairs to the codon on the mRNA. b. The incorrect tRNA does not fit into the A site. c. The preceding amino acid will not permit it to enter the A site. 6. Choose the true statement(s) about stop codons [mark all correct answers] a. Stop codons are needed to terminate transcription. b. All organisms use the stop codon AUG to terminate protein synthesis. c. There are more than one stop codons in the genetic code. d. Under specific circumstances, stop codons may encode non-standard amino acids seen in Archaea and Bacteria. 7. The site of translation is a. ribosomes b. plasma membrane c. nucleus d. Golgi apparatus
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Within the ribosome, the formation of peptide bonds is catalyzed by: a) RNA in the large ribosomal subunit. b) tRNA synthetase. c) peptide in the small ribosomal subunit. d) the tRNA itself. 2. At which site on the DNA of a gene does the RNA polymerase release its newly made RNA? a) stop codon b) TATATT c) terminator d) upstream region 3. RNA polymerase does not have 3' to 5' exonuclease activity. What is the consequence of this? a) Transcription is more error-prone than DNA replication. b) RNA polymerase is more accurate than DNA polymerase. c) RNA is synthesized in the 3' to 5' direction. d) DNA replication is more error-prone than translation. 4. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the lifetime of mRNA? a) The cap and poly-A tail protect the mRNA from degradation. b) Proteins that are needed in great abundance tend to have longer mRNA lifetimes. c) Eukaryotic mRNAs tend to have a shorter lifetime than prokaryotic mRNAs. d) Sequences within the mRNA can regulate the lifetime of the molecule. 5. What is NOT true about codons? a) Some codons code for more than one amino acid. b) Codons bind to complementary anticodons in tRNA. c) Several different codons can code for the same amino acid. d) Some codons do not code for amino acids. 6. Match the protein to its function in transcription. Recognizes promoter region in bacteria: Sigma factor Recognizes promoter region in eukaryote: Transcription Factor IIE Exposes a single-stranded DNA template: RNA polymerase II Transcribes mRNA: Helicase Transcribes tRNA: Transcription Factor IID 7. RNA is processed during transcription. Match the RNA component to the proper term. Covalent attachment of a modified guanine nucleotide: 5' cap Sequence of repeating adenine nucleotides: 3' tail Sequence that forms a lariat during processing: 5' cap Sequence joined by snRNPs: 3' cap
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QUESTION 1: Which of the following statements regarding splicing is FALSE? A) The length of introns determines the efficiency of splicing. B) Many human neurological disorders are caused by splicing errors and/or mutations in splicing factors. C) Splicing requires the action of a variety of snRNAs that direct the transesterification reactions. D) Splicing is dictated by sequence features in pre-mRNA transcripts. QUESTION 2: Which of the following mRNA processing factors does NOT associate with the CTD of RNA polymerase II? A) splicing factors B) polyadenylation factors C) miRNAs/siRNAs D) capping proteins QUESTION 3: Which of the following statements about mRNA stability is FALSE? A) Deadenylation-independent mRNA decay is exclusively in the 5' to 3' direction. B) The most common pathway of mRNA decay is deadenylation-dependent. C) Yeast mRNA decay occurs primarily in the 5' to 3' direction, while 3' to 5' decay is more common in mammalian cells. D) Decapping enzymes are required for all pathways of mRNA decay. QUESTION 4: You obtain the sequence of a gene containing 10 exons, 9 introns, and a 3' UTR containing a polyadenylation consensus sequence. The fifth exon also contains a polyadenylation site. To test whether both polyadenylation sites are used, you isolate mRNA and find a longer transcript from muscle tissue and a shorter transcript from all other tissues. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism underlying these alternative transcripts? A) The fifth exon is spliced out of the mature mRNA transcript in muscle cells. B) Muscle cells have less effective polyadenylation than other tissues. C) An alternative CPSF protein is expressed in muscle cells with lower affinity for the polyadenylation sequence in exon 5. D) The mRNA in muscle cells is edited to eliminate the polyadenylation sequence in exon 5.
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1.Ribosomes select the correct tRNAs via interactions between the codon in the mRNA, the anticodon in the tRNA and bases of the small ribosomal RNA in the base of the A site. This describes: A. Bacterial translation B. Eukaryotic translation C. Bacterial translation and eukaryotic translation 2.The Listeria monocytogenes prfA transcript contains a riboswitch that regulates its translation. This and other bacterial riboswitches are generally characterized by the presence of: A. a short 3' untranslated region following the termination codon B. a short 5' untranslated region preceding the initiation codon C. a long 5' untranslated region preceding the initiation codon D. a long 3' untranslated region following the termination codon 3.What is the first step in the initiation of translation in bacteria? A. the 70S ribosome binds to the initiation codon on the mRNA molecule B. the small subunit of the ribosome binds to the ribosome binding site on the mRNA molecule C. the large subunit of the ribosome binds to the ribosome binding site on the mRNA molecule D. the small subunit of the ribosome binds to the 5' cap of the mRNA before scanning across the UTR until the initiation codon is reached 4.The final step of the initiation phase of translation occurs when A. A complete ribosome is formed with initiator tRNA bound to the initiation codon B. Initiation factors attach to the initiation codon C. The cap binding complex assembles around the 5' cap of the mRNA D. The aminoacyl (A) site of the ribosome occupied by the initiator tRNA 5.In the absence of high levels of steroid (e.g. glucocorticoid, estrogen), a steroid receptor would likely be found A. Bound to Hsp90 in the cytoplasm B. Bound to Hsp90 in the nucleus C. Interacting with nucleosome remodeling complexes in the nucleus D. Bound to Gal3 in the cytoplasm 6.Antennapedia is an homeotic transcription regulator and its homeodomain binds DNA via A. an alpha helix interacting with DNA in major groove B. beta strands interacting with DNA in minor groove C. an alpha helix interacting with DNA in minor groove D. beta strands interacting with DNA in major groove
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