A 27-year-old woman presented to the obstetrics triage area with complaints of a stabbing pain from the lower rib cage to the knees for the previous 14 hours. The patient was 29 weeks pregnant. She stated that she rested most of the day and the pain had subsided to a dull ache. She denied regular contractions or vaginal bleeding. The patient was admitted for observation with the diagnosis of threatened labor-antepartum complications. The following tests were ordered: fetal fibronectin, genital culture, urinalysis, urine culture, C. trachomatis/N. gonorrhoeae by amplified probe, genital viral culture, and M. hominis/U. urealyticum culture.
The urinalysis and fetal fibronectin were performed as STAT tests. The urinalysis was normal and fetal fibronectin was negative. The obstetrics nurse noted that the baby appeared very active. The remaining test results were as follows:
• Genital culture – no group B strep isolated, normal vaginal flora present
• Urine culture – no growth
• C. trachomatis/N. gonorrhoeae amplified probe – negative for both organisms
• Viral culture – negative
• M. hominis/U. urealyticum culture – positive
1. Why is the genital culture result in two parts with a specific mention of group B strep?
Because group B strep
2. Why was a molecular probe done to test for GC/Chlamydia instead of a culture?
Because it is easier and does not take much time to perform it.
3. What is the significance of the positive M. hominis/U. urealyticum culture for the mother? What about for the fetus?