00:01
See, irr is the rate of return that makes npv equals to 0.
00:15
So here we can say minus 40000 plus 9000 multiplied by 1 minus 1, 1 minus 1 divide by here 1 plus 0 .1284 multiplied by 7 then divided by 0 .1284 is equals to 0.
00:44
Now we can say that irr is equals to 12 .84.
00:50
It is always recommend to use a financial calculator to calculate irr.
00:56
Trial and error method can be time consuming.
01:00
Now come to the b part.
01:01
Here we have to see the future value of cash flows and it is equals to cash flow multiplied by 1 plus r multiply n minus 1 divided by r.
01:21
So here we can say that it is equals to 9000 multiplied by 1 plus 0 .11 multiplied by 7 minus 7 sorry minus 1 here 1 will come then divided by 0 .11.
01:42
So it is equals to 9000 multiplied by 9 .783274.
01:50
So it is equals to $88049 .4671.
01:57
Now we can say that future value is equals to present value in bracket 1 plus r multiplied by n.
02:10
So here 88049 .4671 is equals to 40000 multiplied by in bracket 1 plus r and n is equals to 7.
02:24
So it is equals to here 2 .201237 is equals to 1 plus r multiplied by 7.
02:33
So it is 1 .119315 is equals to 1 plus r and r is equals to 0 .119315.
02:44
So we can say mirr is 11 .93%.
02:51
Now move to the c part.
02:54
Here we can say that profitability index is equals to present value of cash flows upon we can say divided by here initial investment.
03:20
So now here we can say it is equals to here present value of cash flows we have to see now and it is equals to annuity multiplied by 1 minus 1 divided by here we have to divide it by 1 plus r multiplied by n then divided by r.
03:52
So here we get 9000 in bracket 1 minus 1 divided by 1 plus 0 .11 multiplied by 7 and then divided by 0 .11.
04:06
So here we get it is equals to 42409 .766.
04:11
So here we can calculate profitability index and it is equals to 42409 .766 divided by 40000.
04:29
So it is equals to 1 .06.
04:32
Now come to the d part.
04:35
Here payback period is equals to 40000 divided by 9000.
04:43
So it is equals to 4 .44 years.
04:46
Now moving to the e part.
04:48
Here in the e part we can say that here we have to find what present value of year 1 cash flow.
05:04
So it is equals to 9000 divided by 1 plus 0 .11.
05:11
So it is equals to 8108 .11.
05:15
Now moving to the second one present value of year 2 cash flow.
05:25
So it is equals to 9000 divided by 1 plus 0 .11 multiplied by 2.
05:33
So we get here 7304 .6...