Let f : { 0,1}n -> { 0,1}m be a one-way function and g : { 0,1}m -> {0,1 }n be also a one-way function. Would F=g ∘ f : { 0,1}n -> { 0,1}n be a one-way function? Here F ( x )=g (f ( x )).
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e., given f(x), it is hard to find x. Show more…
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