Let $f(x) = \frac{1}{x - 6}$ and $g(x) = \frac{2}{x} + 6$. Then $(f \circ g)(x) = $ $(g \circ f)(x) = $
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f(g(x)) = f(2/(x) + 6) f(g(x)) = 1 / ((2/(x) + 6) - 6) f(g(x)) = 1 / (2/x) f(g(x)) = x/2 Therefore, (f@g)(x) = x/2 Show more…
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