List the sequences required for intron removal in eukaryotic...

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Question 7 Which of the following statements about the early events of DNA replication in bacteria is true? A. The origin of replication is a protein that helps initiate strand synthesis by DNA polymerase. B. DNA replication requires Helicase, which is a nucleic acid that helps unwind double-stranded DNA. C. The origin of replication develops at random locations in a bacterial chromosome each replication cycle. D. DnaA is the first protein to bind the origin of replication. Question 8 Which of the following is a property or characteristic of eukaryotic enhancers? A. They can be bound by transcription factor proteins that regulate RNA pol II assembly at a promoter. B. They are always located within 1000 bases of a promoter. C. They possess a Shine Delgarno sequence that can regulate gene expression. D. They usually have a TATA box to which general transcription factors TFIID bind. Question 9 The template strand for a gene has the sequence 5' GGATTCATTGATCTAGA 3' What will be the sequence of the transcript from this gene? A. 5' GGAUUCAUUGAUCUAGA 3' B. 5' AGAUCUAGUUACUUAGG 3' C. 5' UCUAGAUCAAUGAAUCC 3' D. 5' TCTAGATCAATGAATCC 3' Question 10 Which of the following is not common to both prokaryotic and eukaryotic promoters? A. They have consensus sequences that proteins bind in order to help RNA polymerase assemble in a transcriptional complex. B. They bind proteins that assist RNA polymerase assembly into the transcriptional complex. Question 12 In the process of intrinsic transcription termination, what RNA structural features are important to the process? A. The stem loop that forms because of complementarity between bases making up two inverted repeat sequences in the termination sequence. B. The C-terminal domain of RNA pol II serves as a scaffold upon which the cleavage and polyadenylation complex resides, therefore enabling efficient transcription termination. C. A specific sequence of bases at the 3' end of an mRNA is able to catalyze its own excision, thereby terminating transcription. D. The rut sequence in the mRNA that forms a structure that binds Rho protein, which causes mRNA release and transcription termination. Question 13 Imagine that you do this experiment: you create a synthetic gene, based on what you know about the insulin gene in humans (that is, what you know about the nature of genes in humans, i.e. eukaryotes). You create a strain of E. coli in which this synthetic gene has been inserted into the bacterial chromosome. After checking for expression of your synthetic gene, you discover that no mRNA is produced. Which of the following is a possible explanation for this observation? A. The gene is lacking the Shine-Delgarno sequence, therefore RNA polymerase won't be able to assemble on the promoter with any of the sigma subunits. B. The synthetic gene has a eukaryotic promoter that will not be recognized by any of the E. coli sigma-70 subunits, thus RNA polymerase will not bind to the promoter. C. The synthetic gene has a prokaryotic promoter that is missing the TATA box or GC box, thus no sigma subunit can bind and recruit RNA polymerase. D. TFIID and the other general transcription factors are not able to recognize a prokaryotic promoter, therefore they cannot assemble on the promoter of the synthetic gene in a bacterial cell. Question 14 You are studying the expression of a gene in a certain type of eukaryotic cell. Under normal conditions, you measure that the gene is expressed at a certain value. You are able to experimentally alter a nucleotide pair at position -75 relative to the transcription start site. In the altered cells, you now measure a reduced rate of gene expression, 50% the value that you measured from normal cells. What is a reasonable interpretation or hypothesis to explain this observation? A. You likely altered a base located in a consensus sequence of the promoter, and the general transcription factors have a lower affinity for the mutated sequence, therefore transcription initiation complexes form at a reduced rate. B. The mutation most likely altered a consensus sequence for sigma subunit binding, therefore the appropriate sigma subunit is less likely to bind to the sequence in the promoter to recruit RNA polII. C. The mutation likely created an improved binding site for TFIID and the other general transcription factors, thus they are less likely to disassemble to form a new pre-initiation complex. D. You likely altered a base in a sequence that RNA polymerase II requires for binding, therefore it is less able to recruit general transcription factors to the promoter to assemble the pre-initiation complex.

Maitreya E.

Which sequences or molecules are NOT involved in RNA processing in Eukaryotes? 5' -GAGG-3' 7-methylguanosine 5' - AAUAAA -3' snRNA 5' - GU.A.AG-3

Dominador T.

ag-guragu-yurac-yncag-portlon-04-primary-transcript-exon-untron-eron-what-is-the-importance-ofthe-adenine-shown-above-what-does-the-spliceosome-recognize-within-this-pre-rna-molecule-if-you-33742

portion of a primary transcript exon 1 intron exon 2 a. What is the importance of the adenine shown above? b. What does the spliceosome recognize within this pre-RNA molecule? c. If you wanted to engineer a NEW exon into a gene, what sequences would you need to insert?

Adi S.