00:01
So to solve this question, the first step of the process is to convert the given value of the distributed load to a considerable amount of point load.
00:29
So w is further equals to 40 into 1 .5 this will be equals to 60 kh that is kilohertz and it will act at a particular value of the distance which is given by a by 2 that is equals to 0 .75 meter from c.
01:03
So the to solve by using the f body diagram so the free body diagram for the beam bc is given as that is the beam bc the forces are as follows this is denoted as mcd and this is denoted as m a b.
01:40
Here w is acting which is 60 k h and the total value of the l is given as 3 meter and from this to this the value is equals to 0 .75 meter.
02:08
So looking at this free body diagram the equation that we can write is that mab plus mcd is equals to 60kh and this is considered to be the equation 1.
02:27
Similarly another equation that we can deduce from the free body diagram is that summation of mb is equals to 0.
02:35
So putting down the values 0 will be equals to minus 60 into 2 .25 plus mcd into 3.
02:49
So solving further we get the value of mcd here which is equals to 4500 newton or which can be written further as 45 kn.
03:04
So this is the final value for mcd.
03:13
Now putting down the values and substituting it respectively in equation 1, we get mab to be equals to 15 kn that is 15000 n...