Question 39
A 62-year-old woman presents with a complaint of post-menopausal bleeding. She reports that she went through menopause at age 51 and has had no vaginal bleeding until this episode. She reports a normal Pap smear 2 years ago and denies other gynecologic complaints. Her medical history is significant for obesity and hypertension. On exam, the vulva, vagina, and cervix all appear normal. What is the most appropriate next step?
Answers: A - D
A - estrogen/progestin combination pill
B - progesterone therapy
C - hysterectomy
D - endometrial biopsy