Rousseau claims that force can never equal right, yet he also asserts that one might conceivably have to be "forced to be free." How can we make sense of these two seemingly contradictory claims?
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This is a critique of the idea that might makes right, or that those with power are inherently justified in their actions. Secondly, when Rousseau says that one might have to be "forced to be free," he is referring to the concept of the social contract. In his Show more…
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