Question

Show that [frac{d}{dt}int_{-infty}^{infty} Psi_{1}^{*}Psi_{2}dx = 0] for any two normalizable solutions to the Schrödinger equation, (Psi_{1}) and (Psi_{2}), for the same potential (V(x)). Why wouldn't this be true if they were solutions for different potentials? (Hint: For the proof, integration by parts may come in handy. For the second part, you shouldn't have to do any more math, just point to the part in your proof that would change.)

Name: show that fracddtint inftyinfty psi1psi2dx 0 for any two normalizable solutions to the schrodinger equation psi1 and psi2 for the same potential vx why wouldnt this be true if they were 62941
Uploaded: 2022-03-16T10:34:09-08:00
Duration: 4 min 36 s
Channel: Hafiz Shahzaib
Description: show that fracddtint inftyinfty psi1psi2dx 0 for any two normalizable solutions to the schrodinger equation psi1 and psi2 for the same potential vx why wouldnt this be true if they were 62941

          Show that

[frac{d}{dt}int_{-infty}^{infty} Psi_{1}^{*}Psi_{2}dx = 0]

for any two normalizable solutions to the Schrödinger equation, (Psi_{1}) and (Psi_{2}), for the same potential (V(x)). Why wouldn't this be true if they were solutions for different potentials? (Hint: For the proof, integration by parts may come in handy. For the second part, you shouldn't have to do any more math, just point to the part in your proof that would change.)

$show that fracddtint inftyinfty psi1psi2dx 0 for any two normalizable solutions to the schrodinger equation psi1 and psi2 for the same potential vx why wouldnt this be true if they were 62941$

Added by Hannah C.

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