Suppose that $F, G$, and $Q$ are polynomials and $$ \frac{F(x)}{Q(x)}=\frac{G(x)}{Q(x)} $$ for all $x$ except when $Q(x)=0$. Prove that $F(x)=G(x)$ for all $x$. [Hint: Use continuity.]
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Now, let's consider the polynomial $H(x) = F(x)Q(x) - G(x)Q(x)$. We have $H(x) = 0$ for all $x$ except when $Q(x) = 0$. Now, we know that polynomials are continuous functions. Show more…
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