Theorem 4.27 says that if f:[a,b]->R is Riemann integrable then f^(2):[a,b]-> R is Riemann integrable. Does the converse hold? Explain your answer.
5. Theorem 4.27 says that if f : [a,b] -> R is Riemann integrable then f2 : [a,b] - R is Riemann integrable. Does the converse hold? Explain your answer.