I don't understand the proof for (3) -> (1)
Theorem 18.1. Let X and Y be topological spaces; let f : X -> Y. Then the following are equivalent: (1) f is continuous. (2) For every subset A of X, one has f (A) C f(A) (3) For every closed set B of Y, the set f --1(B) is closed in X. (4) For each x e X and each neighborhood V of f(x), there is a neighborhood U of x such that f(U) C V.
If the condition in (4) holds for the point x of X, we say that f is continuous at the point x . Proof.We show that (1) => (2) => (3) => (1) and that (1) => (4) => (1). (1) => (2). Assume that f is continuous. Let A be a subset of X. We show that if x E A, then f(x) e f(A). Let V be a neighborhood of f(x). Then f-1(V) is an open set of X containing x ; it must intersect A in some point y. Then V intersects f (A) in the point f(y), so that f(x) e f(A), as desired. (2) => (3). Let B be closed in Y and let A = f-1(B). We wish to prove that A is closed in X; we show that A = A. By elementary set theory, we have f(A) = f(f-I(B)) C B.Therefore,if x e A,
f(x)Ef(A)C f(A)CB=B
so that x e f-1(B) = A. Thus A C A,so that A = A,as desired (3) => (1). Let V be an open set of Y. Set B = Y - V. Then
f-1(B)= f-1(Y) - f-1(V)= X - f-1(V)
Now B is a closed set of Y. Then f --1(B) is closed in X by hypothesis, so that f --1(V) is open in X, as desired.