Question
If for all $x, y$ the function $f$ is defined by $f(x)+f(y)+$ $f(x) \cdot f(y)=1$ and $f(x)>0$, then(A) $f^{\prime}(x)$ does not exist(B) $f^{\prime}(x)=0$ for all $x$(C) $f^{\prime}(0)<f^{\prime}(1)$(D) None of these
Step 1
Let's substitute $x=0$ and $y=0$ into the equation. We get $2f(0)+f(0)^2=1$. Show more…
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