Prove that $\langle f, g\rangle=\int_0^1 f(x) g(x) d x$ does not define an inner product on the vector space $\mathrm{C}^0[-1,1]$. Explain why this does not contradict the fact that it defines an inner product on the vector space $\mathrm{C}^0[0,1]$. Does it define an inner product on the subspace $\mathcal{P}^{(n)} \subset \mathrm{C}^0[-1,1]$ consisting of all polynomial functions?