Rolle's Theorem The function
$f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{ll}{0,} & {x=0} \\ {1-x,} & {0 < x \leq 1}\end{array}\right.$
is differentiable on $(0,1)$ and satisfies $f(0)=f(1)$ . However, its derivative is never zero on $(0,1) .$ Does this contradict Rolle's Theorem? Explain.