Question
Suppose $X$ and $Y$ are discrete r.v.s such that $P(X=Y)=1$. This means that $X$ and $Y$ always take on the same value.(a) Do $X$ and $Y$ have the same PMF?(b) Is it possible for $X$ and $Y$ to be independent?
Step 1
(a) Since $P(X=Y)=1$, this means that for any value $x$, we have $P(X=x) = P(Y=x)$. Show more…
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