00:01
In this question, we are going to determine the induced emf and induced current respectively for a bar moving near a current -carrying wire and for a loop moving near a current -carrying wire.
00:19
To find the emf induced in the bar, we need to begin with the equation for motional emf, which is the line integral of the cross product of the velocity and magnetic field times dl, where dl is the length of our conductor that's going to be parallel to the magnetic force.
00:59
So what's really nice here is that, excuse me, so v and b are already perpendicular, so we can simply take v times b.
01:14
And then the thing that's going to be a little bit tricky here is that we have a spatial variation of the magnetic field because the magnetic field due to a current -carrying wire is mu -naught i over 2 pi r, where r is the distance away from the wire.
01:34
So clearly b will be weaker at point b on the bar and it will be stronger at point a.
01:51
So i mean, this is all going to work out, don't worry.
01:54
So what ends up happening here is that dl ends up becoming a differential for how b varies in space.
02:32
And so we can now say that our emf will be equal to the line integral.
02:39
And now here's the thing, i'm going to start from point b because our magnetic field due to this current -carrying wire, according to the right -hand rule for the field due to a current -carrying wire, is going to be into the page and it's going to be very strong at position a and it's going to be less strong at in the middle of the bar and then it's going to be weaker over here at position b.
03:13
So the right -hand rule for a charged particle moving in a magnetic field tells me that regardless of the strength of my field, the magnetic force on these charged particles is going to be upward.
03:34
So i'm going to start my integration from point b and integrate up to point a so that f and dl are in the same direction.
03:46
So we will be integrating from d plus l, where d is the distance from the wire and l is the length of the bar, up to d of v, the velocity given, times mu naught i over 2 pi.
04:06
And i'm going to go ahead and just use little l as my integration variable times dl.
04:14
And notice that everything except for my 1 over l comes out.
04:25
So v mu naught i over 2 pi times the integral from d plus l to d of 1 over l dl is my result of this...