Question
Using induction or otherwise, prove that for any non-negative integers $m, n, r$ and $k$,$\sum_{m=0}^{k}(n-m) \frac{(r+m) !}{m !}=\frac{(r+k+1) !}{k !}\left[\frac{n}{r+1}-\frac{k}{r+2}\right]$
Step 1
Step 1: Let's denote the given equation as $P(k)$, which is: \[P(k) = \sum_{m=0}^{k}(n-m) \frac{(r+m) !}{m !}=\frac{(r+k+1) !}{k !}\left[\frac{n}{r+1}-\frac{k}{r+2}\right]\] Show more…
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