56. What information provided below would trigger Security breach notification law? a. Social Security number, State ID number, MediCal ID number. b. Social Security number, name, State ID number. c. Name, physical description, and home phone number. d. Driver license number, work phone number, and State ID number. Mark to review later... 57. According to the passage, which of the following is true? a. Breach notification must always be made immediately with no exceptions. b. If a breach occurs on July 1, 2002 the law requires notification. c. Information Practices Act (IPA) only applies in the State of California. d. Encrypted personal information does not fall under the security breach notification law. Mark to review later... 58. According to the passage, which of the following is true? a. A police agency may postpone a breach notification. b. Medical explanation of benefit statement is not a breach notice triggering document. c. Without disclosing the person's name, you can still trigger the breach notification law. d. State agencies are exempt from the Security breach notification laws. Mark to review later...
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The information that would trigger Security breach notification law would be a combination of personal identification numbers and names. Therefore, the correct answer would be b. Social Security number, name, State ID number. Show more…
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Q17. Which is not among the OHS expert powers? A) In the event that a close and life threatening issue identified in the workplace requires urgent intervention, the employer or the representative of the employer to temporarily stop the work on the condition of approval. B) To carry out research and research on occupational health and safety in all departments of the workplace, to reach necessary information and documents and to discuss with employees. C) To communicate with the relevant institutions and organizations within the knowledge of the employer about the matters required by his / her duty and to cooperate in accordance with the internal regulations of the workplace. D) Stop work directly when it detects a life threatening and threatening situation in the workplace building and add-ons, working methods and forms or in the work equipment E) Occupational safety experts assigned with full-time employment contract, to participate in organizations such as training, seminars and panels to ensure their professional development related to the workplace. Q13. What is the definition of a risk level that is consistent with legal obligations and the workplace prevention policy, which will not cause loss or injury? A) Preventable risk B) High Risk C) Danger D) Acceptable risk E) Inappropriate risk Q14. What is the definition of the hazards that may or may not come from the workplace, the factors that cause these hazards to be transformed into risk, the risks that are caused by the hazards to be analyzed and graded, and the work to be done in order to decide the control measures? A) Corrective action B) Hazop assessment C) Preventive evaluation D) Risk assessment E) Risk analysis Q18. Which is not an OHS expert's obligation? A) Not to hinder the normal flow of work as much as possible during their work and to contribute to the provision of an efficient work environment. B) To keep confidential information about the secrets, economic and commercial status of the employer and the workplace. C) Occupational safety specialist, the work done in the workplace to determine the recommendations and recommendations in the written book. D) Not to sign the order or keep it properly E) To keep copies of the records recorded in the approved book with the workplace physician. Q19. Which of the business hazard class and OHS expert mappings is wrong? I- Very Less Dangerous - Class D II- Less Hazardous - Class C III- Dangerous - Class B IV- Very Hazardous - Class A A) Only I B) Only II C) Only III D) I-IV E) I-II E) FMEA Q25. Which is not considered a psychosocial risk factor? A) Working environment and duration B) Danger of working environment C) Administrative and employee factors D) Unaware physical risks E) Discrimination, oppression and harassment Q26. What is the first disturbance of the human body to psychosocial risk? A) Musculoskeletal system disorders B) Attention Clutter C) Irregular headaches D) Continuous fatigue E) Loss of balance and nausea
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Participant Safety & Adverse Events 1. A participant missed a study visit as he was hospitalized for pneumonia, and then he reported to the study clinic a week later. What is the most appropriate course of action? A. No action is required. B. Report it as an adverse event (AE). C. Remind the participant of the importance of attending study visits as scheduled without exception. D. Report it as a serious adverse event (SAE). 2. Mandatory elements in the definition of an adverse event (AE) include which of the following? A. Untoward medical occurrence. B. Use of pharmaceutical product or a study intervention. C. Patient or clinical investigation subject involvement. D. Causal relationship with the pharmaceutical product. E. A, B, and C only. F. All of the above. 3. A serious adverse event (SAE) does NOT need to be reported to NIDA or designee within 24 hours in which of the following situations? A. The investigator considers the SAE unrelated to the study intervention. B. The SAE is non-fatal and non-life-threatening. C. The SAE occurs in a behavioral study. D. The SAE occurs in a non-Investigational New Drug study. E. The SAE occurs in the post-treatment observation period. F. None of the above. 4. A serious adverse event (SAE) should be reported to the local IRB within what period of time after learning of the event? A. 5 days B. 2 weeks C. 24 hours D. Follow the local IRB reporting guidelines. 5. Which source document may NOT be used to determine whether an adverse event is expected or not in clinical studies in which an investigational new drug is used? A. Investigator Brochure B. Protocol C. Informed Consent Form D. Annual Safety Report E. All of the above may be used.
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According to the Federal Trade Commission report on consumer fraud and identity theft, 23% of all complaints in 2007 were for identity theft. This year, a certain state kept track of how many of its 1380 complaints were for identity theft. They want to know if the data provide enough evidence to show that this state had a different proportion of identity theft than 23%. State the sample statistic, population parameter, and hypotheses. a) The sample statistic in context is: The percentage of 1380 randomly selected complaints filed with the FTC for that state that are for identity theft. b) The population parameter is: The percentage of all complaints filed with the FTC for that state that are for identity theft. c) Fill in the correct null and alternative hypotheses: H0: p = 0.23 HA: p ≠0.23 d) A Type I error in the context of this problem would be: Rejecting the null hypothesis when the proportion of identity theft in the state is actually 0.23. e) A Type II error in the context of this problem would be: Failing to reject the null hypothesis when the proportion of identity theft in the state is actually different from 0.23.
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