Question

A 40-year-old man develops malaise, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea 2 days after undergoing an outpatient surgical procedure. He appears very ill and confused. His temperature is 39.5°C (103.1°F), pulse is 110/min and regular, and blood pressure is 130/78 mm Hg. Physical examination shows warm extremities. Blood cultures grow a gram-negative bacterium. Which of the following mechanisms best explains this patient's relatively normal blood pressure? A) Cerebral vasoconstriction B) Coronary vasodilation C) Cutaneous vasodilation D) Reabsorption of interstitial fluid E) Splanchnic vasoconstriction

          A 40-year-old man develops malaise, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea 2 days after undergoing an outpatient surgical procedure. He appears very ill and confused. His temperature is 39.5°C (103.1°F), pulse is 110/min and regular, and blood pressure is 130/78 mm Hg. Physical examination shows warm extremities. Blood cultures grow a gram-negative bacterium. Which of the following mechanisms best explains this patient's relatively normal blood pressure?
A) Cerebral vasoconstriction
B) Coronary vasodilation
C) Cutaneous vasodilation
D) Reabsorption of interstitial fluid
E) Splanchnic vasoconstriction

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