00:01
The solution for this question is, first we need to calculate the present value of the cash flows using the company's weight coverage cost of the capital which is the pacc of the 7%.
00:15
The formula to calculate the present value of the cash flows is the pv equals to cf1 by 1 plus r raise to 1 plus cf2 by 1 plus r raise to 2 plus cf3 by 1 plus r raise to 3 plus cf4 by 1 plus r raise to 4 where the pv it is the present value.
00:57
So, cf is the cash flow for 1 year and r is the r here is the discount rate of the wacc.
01:07
Using the given cash flows and the wacc of the 7%, we can calculate the present value of the each cash flows.
01:17
So, pv1 equals to 2000 ,000 dollars by 1 plus 0 .7 raise to 1 that will be equals to 1869 ,159 .81 dollars.
01:34
Then pv2 that is equals to 3750 ,000 by 1 plus 0 .07 raise to 2 that is equals to 3378 ,766 .38.
01:54
The pv3 that will be equals to 37500 ,000 by 1 plus 0 .07 raise to 3 that is equals to 999 ,999 .25 dollars...