QUESTION 41 ELISA Can measure protein abundance Requires antibodies Can be executed using a sandwich protocol Typically uses a multiwell plate All of the above QUESTION 42 You are working with a human cell type in culture and you need to know if it is regarded as a cell line or a cell strain. What parameter could be analyzed in this regard to distinguish the difference. The size difference between the two cell types The ability of one but not the other to enter cell senescence and then apoptosis after a few dozen doublings. The ability of one but not the other to grow in media containing serum The ability of one but not the other to go through the cell cycle abnormally fast The ability of one but not the other to adhere to cell culture microbeads QUESTION 43 Teloyears is a company that can tell you how long your telomeres are. Where would you find telomeres? Tips of chromosomes Cell membrane exoplasmic (outside) surface Mitochondrial DNA Expressed exclusively in cancer stem cell cytoplasm Circulating as a protein in your blood QUESTION 44 You are working with tissue sections from a tumor and view an interesting cell within this tumor that you think is a cancer stem cell. You would like to remove this cell so that you can subsequently analyze it using single cell analysis. Which microscope would be best in this regard? Two photon microscopy Spinning disk confocal microscopy Laser capture microdissection microscopy Transmission electron microscopy High voltage electron microscopy QUESTION 45 The insulin receptor was purified for the first time several decades ago relying on the ability of insulin to bind to the receptor. Which technique was used in this regard? Gel filtration SELDI-TOF DEAE ion exchange chromatography Protein A immunoprecipitation Affinity chromatography QUESTION 46 The elution of proteins from ion exchange chromatography beads is the last critical step for protein separation and isolation. What is typically used for this purpose? EGTA Liberase Triton-X 100 Sodium chloride Protein A QUESTION 47 "Pigs have been considered as possible candidates to partially address the organ transplant supply demand curve which is out of balance. While transplanting a pig organ (xenotransplantation) is not allowed in the US and other countries, pigs may be good candidates for future organ transplantation. Why is this the case?" Their organs are of similar size to humans Their tissues when implanted result in a very minimal immune response They contain no viruses in their genome making them safe for transplant They contain unique B cells which when injected with a transplanted pig organ prevents rejection All of the above QUESTION 48 "You are working in a laboratory and processing a tissue using formaldehyde. At the end of the processing procedure you stain the tissue section with hematoxylin and eosin that appear purple and pink, respectively, in the microscope. Which microscope is best designed to viewing this tissue?" Spinning-disk confocal microscope Fluorescence microscope Phase microscope Bright field/compound light microscope Atomic force microscope QUESTION 49 Cytochrome p450 is commonly lost over time in primary human hepatocytes. What does cytochrome p450 do? It repairs telomeres It detoxifies substances and generates water soluble products that are secreted It ensures that the mitochondria in aging cells stay active It adds phosphates and carbohydrate groups to newly synthesized proteins The function of this enzyme is not yet known QUESTION 50 Bispecific antibodies have advantages or limitations over native monoclonal antibodies given that unlike native monoclonal antibodies bispecific antibodies Can bring three different cell types together in close proximity that in select cases can result in apoptosis of a targeted cell Can be used with gold particles for labeling proteins Can be used in ELISA assays whereas traditional monoclonal antibodies can't be used for this purpose Can be visualized using phase microscopy unlike traditional monoclonal antibodies All of the above
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Question 43: Where would you find telomeres? Answer: Tips of chromosomes. Question 44: Which microscope would be best for removing a cell from a tissue section for subsequent single cell analysis? Answer: Laser capture microdissection microscopy. Question 45: Show more…
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Adi S.
Which of these cellular processes is not directly dependent on actin? Group of answer choices: - Movement of listeria in the cytosol - Cytokinesis - Cellular movement - Phagocytosis - Chromosome segregation during mitosis You are assigned to clone a PCR fragment into a plasmid (shown in figure 12). Numbers denote distances between indicated cut sites in base pairs (bp). Your plan is to cut both the plasmid and PCR product with BamHI. After ligating the insert into the plasmid, you plan to screen for successful insertion using a HindIII digest and an agarose gel. How many bands should be present in a successful ligation if screening by a HindIII digest on an agarose gel? Group of answer choices: - 4 - 3 - 5 - 1 - 2 If an insert is successfully ligated into the plasmid via Bam HI (figure 12), it could be inserted in either direction. Which of these is not the size of a band that would be present in either possibility when the plasmid is digested by HindIII and run on an agarose gel? Group of answer choices: - 5,000 bp - 1,800 bp - 4,200 bp - 1,000 bp - 6,000 bp You are studying the substrates of the S-CDK/cyclin complex. You create a cell where you replace the CDC6 gene with a mutant version that cannot be phosphorylated. What outcome would you expect? Group of answer choices: - During mitosis, the chromosomes would not be able to condense - The cell would lose control of the cell cycle and become cancerous - The cell would no longer be able to replicate DNA - The cell would get stuck at the S to G2 transition - The cell would not be able to undergo apoptosis Metabolism is usually described as having catabolic and anabolic pathways. Which of these statements is most accurate? Group of answer choices: - Catabolic pathways are never spontaneous - Enzymes are only used for anabolism, not catabolism - Anabolism is driven by entropy - Anabolic pathways always have a ΔG < 0 - The energy harvested from catabolism can be used to create macromolecules during anabolism. Of the organelles listed here, how many have a "double" membrane? - Mitochondrion - Lysosome - Golgi apparatus - Endoplasmic reticulum - Nucleus Group of answer choices: - 3 - 2 - 1 - 4 - 5 Which of these statements about ubiquitin/ubiquitination is false? Group of answer choices: - Many proteins that are purposely degraded are first ubiquitinated - Ubiquitinated proteins are degraded in the lysosome - Ubiquitin is a protein that is attached to other proteins - Ubiquitinated proteins are cleaved by the proteasome - Many proteins that are not folded properly get ubiquitinated Which of these do not occur during apoptosis? Group of answer choices: - Inactivation of Bax/Bak - Release of cytochrome c from the mitochondria - Cleavage of genomic DNA - Activation of caspases - Loss of membrane integrity Which of these do not directly require ATP? Group of answer choices: - Myosin motor movement - Movement of listeria around a cell - Muscle contraction - Polymerization of actin - Polymerization of tubulin All kinases have a conserved sequence of amino acids within their active site. Which statement best explains why this is? Group of answer choices: - Mutation of any kinase can lead to cancer, therefore they must have conserved amino acids in the active site - All kinases phosphorylate substrates and therefore use conserved amino acids to catalyze the reaction - All kinases are targeted to the nucleus, therefore they must have conserved amino acids in their active site - All kinases have a corresponding phosphatase to dephosphorylate the substrate and therefore use conserved amino acids in the active site - All kinases function on the same substrates and therefore have conserved amino acids in the active site Which of these statements about fatty acids and phospholipids is false? Group of answer choices: - Three fatty acids attached to a glycerol molecule is known as a phospholipid - Saturated fatty acids are more likely to be solid at room temperature - Phospholipids are allowed to move laterally within the membrane - Fatty acid tails are non-polar and therefore hydrophobic - Unsaturated fatty acids are more likely to be liquid at room temperature because they have kinked tails
Josee P.
CASE STUDY Part 1: You are a researcher working for the USDA. After 2 years of effort, you have isolated in pure culture a new, highly virulent bacterium from duck feces that is responsible for several major outbreaks of deaths in mammalian wildlife from contaminated pond water in the Southern US states. Based on 16S rRNA sequence comparison, you have determined that this new bacterium is distantly related to the gram-negative bacterium V. cholerae, and you have named the new strain Vibrio birdsii. Using high-throughput/Next-Gen DNA sequencing methods, your research group has completely sequenced and annotated the genome of V. birdsii. You have subsequently determined that V. birdsii is sensitive to ampicillin (i.e., it cannot grow in its presence). You have also obtained the following molecular "tools" that can be used in V. birdsii: (1) a Vibrio transposon that you can use to generate a transposon mutant library of V. birdsii; (2) a STM transposon system that you can use to generate a signature-tagged mutagenesis (STM) library of V. birdsii; (3) a "shuttle vector" that encodes ampicillin resistance and can replicate in both E. coli and V. birdsii; (4) a plasmid encoding ampicillin resistance that will integrate into the V. birdsii genome by homologous recombination (it integrates at a site known not to be involved in virulence in vivo). Furthermore, mice appear to be an excellent animal model for the disease caused by V. birdsii, which results primarily from uptake through drinking contaminated water, followed by colonization of the gut and bloody diarrhea, and then by invasion of intestinal cells with spreading to lymph nodes and spleen, and finally death by dehydration and/or organ failure. You are interested in identifying virulence factors associated with disease in mice. Part 2: Using a STM strategy to identify putative virulence genes in V. birdsii, a total of 2 putative virulence gene mutants were identified. Furthermore, a third virulence gene was also identified by screening individual mutants of a "regular" transposon mutant library for attenuated virulence in vivo. Sequencing of the chromosomal DNA immediately flanking the inserted transposon combined with bioinformatics tools yielded the following putative identification and information: Gene name (Based on annotated V. birdsii genome) --> Predicted function (based on sequence homology to known virulence factors of other bacteria) toxA --> Secreted enterotoxin sigY --> Alternative sigma factor that regulates genes involved in iron acquisition orf2559 --> Predicted outer membrane protein, no known function QUESTION 1. What technique could you use to determine the amount and different types of immune cells (T-cells, B-cells, etc) present in mice infected with the toxA mutant strain? A) Flow cytometry B) Biophotonic imaging C) RNAseq D) IVIAT QUESTION 2 Which of the following are not advantages to using signature-tagged mutagenesis (STM) to identify bacterial virulence genes important for pathogenesis in vivo? A) Since STM is essentially a competition experiment between many mutants growing in a single host, trans complementation effects could be observed. B) STM bypasses the need for initial in vitro screening for virulence phenotypes. C) A relatively small number of animals are utilized in screening STM mutants D) STM is a method that can be applied to a wide variety of bacteria.
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